IOM BSN 2071: Institute of Medicine ( IOM) BSN 2071

Want to test your knowledge for free? take a practice test : Past paper Practice test for IOM BSN 2071

Zoology

  1. Cilia move by
    1. Flagella
    2. Water current
    3. ATP
    4. Viscosity
  2. Fish having poison on the tail is called
    1. Shark
    2. Dolphin
    3. Excocoetus
    4. Torpedo
  3. Most of the marine species are found in the phylum
    1. Porifera
    2. Coelenterata
    3. Echinodermata
    4. Mollusca
  4. Schistosoma belongs to
    1. Coelenterata
    2. Platyhelminthes
    3. Aschelmenthes
    4. Mollusca
  5. Which of the following is also known as the protein house of the cell?
    1. Lysosome
    2. Mitochondria
    3. Ribosome
    4. Golgi body
  6. The site of the urea cycle in mammals is
    1. Lungs
    2. Kidney
    3. Liver
    4. Spleen
  7. Fat digestion in the lymph capillaries of intestinal villi are due to
    1. Chyle
    2. Lacteals
    3. Bile
    4. Lymph
  8. The infective stage of plasmodium to man is
    1. Sporozoite
    2. Trophozoite
    3. Cryptozoite
    4. Metacryotozoites
  9. Macrophages of the liver is:
    1. Dust cell
    2. Sinosoidal cells
    3. Kuffer cells
    4. Langerhans cell
  10. Which of the following is a cold-blooded animal?
    1. Rabbit
    2. Ostrich
    3. Lizard
    4. Penguin
  11. Hair and nails are the derivatives of
    1. Ectoderm
    2. Mesoderm
    3. Endoderm
    4. All
  12. The odontoid process is found in 
    1. Atlas
    2. Axis
    3. C-3 Vertebra
    4. L5 Vertebra
  13. The kidney of the tadpole is?
    1. Pronephrous
    2. Metanephrous
    3. Mesonephric
    4. Telonephric
  14. Which of the following opening is present in the duodenum?
    1. Opening of the parotid gland
    2. Opening of gastric glands
    3. Opening of the hepatobiliary duct
    4. Opening of the splenic duct
  15. BCS are formed in 
    1. Bone Marrow
    2. Spleen
    3. Liver
    4. Lymph node
  16. Corpus collasum is present in which part of the brain?
    1. Cerebellum
    2. Medulla
    3. Cerebrum
    4. Midbrain
  17. Which part of the eye is used in eye donation?
    1. Retina
    2. Cornea
    3. Vitrous
    4. Whole eyeball
  18. Which organ can be called as a jack of all trades?
    1. Skin
    2. Liver
    3. Brain 
    4. Heart
  19. “Chyluria” is a characteristic sign of 
    1. Diarrhoea
    2. Filariasis
    3. Rabies
    4. Meningitis
  20. AIDS primarily affects which of the following blood cell
    1. Helper-T lymphocytes(CD4 maker)
    2. RBC
    3. B- Lymphocytes
    4. Platelets
  21. The oviducal aperture of pheretima lies on the mid-ventral side of the …. Segment
    1. 13th
    2. 14th
    3. 15th
    4. 16th
  22. The loss or reduction in the number of digits in an adaptation of the type:
    1. Cursorial adaptation
    2. Fossorial adaptation
    3. Volant adaptation
    4. Scansorial adaptation
  23. Diphyllobothrium of phylum Platyhelminthes is known as:
    1. Fish tape worm
    2. Pork tape worm
    3. Dog tape worm
    4. Dwarf tape worm
  24. Widal test is done for
    1. Enteric fever
    2. T.B
    3. Cholera
    4. Hepatitis
  25. Wings of bird and insect represent
    1. Analogous organ
    2. Homologous organ
    3. Atavism organ
    4. Vestigial organ

Botany

  1. The segregation ratio in F2 generation for Mendel Dihybrid cross is
    1. 3:1
    2. 1:2:1
    3. 12:3:1
    4. 9:3:3:1
  2. Glycolysis takes place in 
    1. Cytoplasm
    2. Mitochondrial matrix
    3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
    4. Inter membranous space
  3. The enzyme used in genetic engineering for cutting DNA segments is
    1. DNA Polymerase
    2. Ligase
    3. Restriction endonuclease
    4. ATPase
  4. ‘Hesperidium’ is a type of fruit in 
    1. Euphorbia
    2. Orange
    3. Jack fruit
    4. Pineapple
  5. Snakes of the plant kingdom are
    1. Pteridophyta
    2. Bryophyte
    3. Gymnosperm
    4. Thallophyta
  6. Nacked seed is the characteristics of 
    1. Angiosperm
    2. Pteridophytes
    3. Mosses
    4. Pinus
  7. In which stage of the mitosis do chromatids of each chromosome separate and move towards the pole?
    1. Prophase
    2. Metaphase
    3. Anaphase
    4. Telophase
  8. Gangong’s Potometer is an instrument which measures the rate of:
    1. Photosynthesis
    2. Respiration
    3. Transpiration
    4. Growth
  9. Lichen represents the symbiotic association between
    1. Algae & mosses
    2. Algae and bryophytes
    3. Algae and fungi
    4. Fungi and gymnosperm
  10. Which of the following fruit is pepo?
    1. Coconut
    2. Cucumber
    3. Banana
    4. Papaya
  11. The arrangement of sepal and petal in bud condition is called
    1. Inflorescence 
    2. Phylotaxy
    3. Aestivation
    4. Vernation
  12. Which one is not modified root
    1. Clinging
    2. Haustorium
    3. Rhizome
    4. Climbing
  13. Edible mushroom belongs to
    1. Ascomycetes
    2. Basidiomycetes
    3. Deuteromycetes
    4. Myxomycetes
  14. Which of the following stage is the second stage of karyokinesis?
    1. Prophase
    2. Metaphase
    3. Anaphase
    4. Telophase
  15. Element mostly used in biology is?
    1. Na+
    2. K+
    3. Ca+2
    4. Mg+2
  16. The endosperm of cycas is:
    1. Haploid
    2. Diploid
    3. Triploid
    4. Polyploidy
  17. Which of the following is concerned with genetic engineering?
    1. Rna
    2. Plasmid
    3. Mitochondria
    4. Gene
  18. Monothecus kidney-shaped anthers are the characteristic feature of
    1. Solanaceae
    2. Malvaceae
    3. Liliaceae
    4. Compositae
  19. Passage cells Casparian strips of suberin are found in
    1. Epidermis
    2. Endodermis
    3. Pericycle
    4. Cortex
  20. Bird flu is caused by which of the following virus?
    1. H1N1
    2. H5N1
    3. H5N5
    4. Corona Virus
  21. The superiority of hybrids over parents is
    1. Hybridisation
    2. Fertilization
    3. Hybrid sterility
    4. Heterosis
  22. In prokaryotes the total number of ATP produced in aerobic respiration is
    1. 36
    2. 2
    3. 38
    4. 36
  23. Aerenchyma is found in
    1. Xerophytes
    2. Hydrophytes
    3. Lithophytes
    4. Halophytes
  24. Prothallus of fern is
    1. Haploid
    2. Diploid
    3. Triploid
    4. Polyploid
  25. Lodicules in the flowers of graminae are the modification of
    1. Petals
    2. Tepals
    3. Sepals
    4. Stamens

Physics

  1. An object of rest may have
    1. Velocity
    2. Acceleration
    3. Momentum
    4. Energy
  2. The half-life of Radium is 1600 years. What is the fraction of the sample remaining after 6400 years?
    1. 1/64
    2. 1/4
    3. 1/256
    4. 1/16
  3. A man heard the sound, it means the quality of sound depends upon?
    1. Frequency
    2. Wavelength
    3. Overtone
    4. Velocity
  4. The speed of light in a medium of refractive index 2 will
    1. 3 x 108 m/s
    2. 1.5 x 108 m/s
    3. 2 x 108 m/s
    4. 6 x 108 m/s
  5. The quality of sound depends upon
    1. Frequency
    2. Pitch
    3. No. of overtones
    4. Square of amplitude
  6. Cathode rays are
    1. Stream of electrons
    2. Stream of protons
    3. Stream of ɑ-particle
    4. Stream of neutrons
  7. Two thin lenses of focal length 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective power of the combination is?
    1. 2D
    2. 5D
    3. 9D
    4. 6D
  8. When a wire of resistance 25 Ω is made circular, then the resistance of one quarter is?
    1. 6 Ω
    2. 100 Ω
    3. 5 Ω
    4. 6.25 Ω
  9. If it takes 10 min to cool the water from 60℃ to 50℃. How much time will it take to cool from 50℃ t0 40℃?
    1. 10 min
    2. More than 10 min
    3. Less than 10 min
    4. None
  10. The fact that light can be polarized establishes that light
    1. Travels in the form of particles
    2. Is an electromagnetic wave
    3. Is a longitudinal wave
    4. Is a transverse wave
  11. A rectifier converts
    1. AC into DC
    2. DC into AC
    3. AC into AC
    4. DC into DC
  12. R is the horizontal range of projectile for an angle of projection of 15°. For the same range, an another angle of projection will be
    1. 30°
    2. 75°
    3. 60°
    4. 45°
  13. Which of the following α particle?
    1. 1H2
    2. 2He2
    3. 1He2
    4. 1Li2
  14. If the period of oscillation of mass M suspended from a spring is 1s, then the period of the oscillation of mass 4M will be
    1. 2sec
    2. ½ sec
    3. ¼ sec
    4. 4 sec
  15. The dimensional formula of impulse is
    1. [MLT-2]
    2. [MLT-1]
    3. [ML2T-1]
    4. [M2LT-1]
  16. 1 Vm-1 equals
    1. 1 N
    2. 1 Nm
    3. 1 NC-1 
    4. 1 JC-1 
  17. If the work of 5 J is done by applying a charge of 10C, find it’s emf
    1. 1V
    2. 5V
    3. 10V
    4. 0.5V
  18. The wood of 0.2 m3, the mass of 120 kg floats in water, how much weight can be added to it in order to make it fully sink?
    1. 50 kg
    2. 80 kg
    3. 120 kg
    4. 20 kg
  19. The neutral temperature of a thermocouple is 300 ℃. What is the inversion temperature if the temperature of the cold junction is 10 ℃?
    1. 590 ℃
    2. 610 ℃
    3. 310 ℃
    4. 290 ℃
  20. What is the equation for Newton’s second law of motion?
    1. F = GMm/R2
    2. F=Ma
    3. Action = – reaction
    4. P = mv

Chemistry

  1. There is no effect of pressure in the equilibrium of the reaction
    1. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH2
    2. 2SO2 + O2 →  2SO3
    3. H2 + Cl2 →  2HCI
    4. PCL3 + Cl2 →  PCL5
  2. Rate of reaction is independent of
    1. Pressure
    2. Temperature
    3. Concentration of reactants
    4. Catalyst
  3. Dehydrophalogenation of alkyl halide gives
    1. Alkene
    2. Alkyne
    3. Alkane
    4. Dialkyl halide
  4. Maximum entropy is shown by
    1. Ice
    2. Liquid
    3. Water vapour
    4. Snow
  5. One element A has 3 electrons in its outermost orbit and another element B has 6 electrons in the outermost orbit. The  compound formed by A and B is
    1. A3B3
    2. A3B6
    3. A2B3
    4. A3B2
  6. Iodoform test is not answered by
    1. CH3OH
    2. C2H5OH
    3. CH3COCH3
    4. CH3-CH|-OH -CH3
  7. In any given orbit electron fill up in increasing order of energy it is known as
    1. Aufbau principle
    2. Pauli’s exclusion principle
    3. Hund’s rule
    4. Uncertainty principle
  8. 2.2 gm of CO2 at NTP occupy
    1. 22.2 L
    2. 2.24 L
    3. 17.2 L
    4. 1.12 L
  9. The amount of H2SO4 present in 500ml of 2N H2SO4 Solution is
    1. 89 gm
    2. 49 gm
    3. 33.5 gm
    4. 24.5 gm
  10. If the solubility of AgCI is 1.435 X 10-3 gm/litre the solubility product of AgCI will be
    1. 0.01 x 10-10
    2. 1.0 x 10-10
    3. 2.06 x 10-10
    4. 4.06 x 10-10
  11. When 8 gm of H2 and 8 gm. Of O2 combines, the amount of water formed is 
    1. 9 gm
    2. 8 gm
    3. 27 gm
    4. 4.5 gm
  12. The equivalent weight of acid is equal to 
    1. Mol. wt. / basicity
    2. Mol. wt. / acidity
    3. Mol. wt x basicity
    4. Mol. wt. X acidity
  13. A typical reaction of Aldehyde & Ketone is
    1. Electrophilic Substitution
    2. Electrophilic Addition
    3. Nucleophilie substitution
    4. Nuoleophilic Addition
  14. Which of the following process is used in the preparation of ether?
    1. Wurtz reaction
    2. Kolbes synthesis
    3. Williamsons synthesis
    4. Hoffmann synthesis
  15. Aspirin is formed when acetyl chloride reacts with
    1. m-hydroxy benzene
    2. m-hydroxybenzoic acid
    3. m-hydroxybenzoic acid
    4. m-hydroxybenzoic acid
  16. Which of the following compounds produced holes in the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?
    1. Sulphur dioxide
    2. Carbon dioxide
    3. Freon
    4. Carbon monoxide
  17. Bleaching acting of H2O2 is due to its
    1. Oxidising property
    2. Reducing property
    3. Dehydrating property
    4. Due to its acidic nature
  18. Ostwald’s process is used for the manufacture of
    1. Ammonia 
    2. Nitric acid
    3. Sulphuric acid
    4. Milk of sulphur
  19. The agent used to remove impurities from the ore is 
    1. Slag
    2. Flux
    3. Gangue
    4. Catalyst
  20. Bronze is an alloy of
    1. Cu + Zn
    2. Cu + Sn
    3. Zn + Sn
    4. Catalyst
  21. PH of 0.001 M HCI is 
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 0
  22. Gypsum salt is 
    1. MgSO4.2H2O
    2. CaSO4.2H2O
    3. CaSO4.3H2O
    4. MgSO4.7H2O
  23. 1–bromo butane and 2 — bromo butane are…… isomers.
    1. Functional
    2. Positional
    3. Chain
    4. Optical
  24. When ethyl alcohol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at about 160-170 ℃, it produces:
    1. Ethane
    2. Ethyne
    3. Ethyl ether
    4. Ethene 
  25. 3.34 g of an oxide ‘X’ of atomic weight 127 contains 2.54 g of X. Its formula should be:
    1. X2O3
    2. X2O4
    3. X2O5
    4. X2O7 
  26. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with 
    1. Acetaldehyde
    2. Formaldehyde
    3. Baking soda
    4. Formic acid
  27. Ethylene and Acetylene can be separated by
    1. Ammonical AgNO3
    2. Alkaline KMnO4
    3. Fehling’s solution
    4. Tollen’s regents
  28. The rate of diffusion of a gas A is 5 times that of a gas ‘B’, What will be the ratio of their densities?
    1. 1/25
    2. 1/5
    3. 25
    4. 5
  29. NH4CNO → NH2CONH2, This reaction is
    1. Elimination reaction
    2. Rearrangement reaction
    3. Sublimation reaction
    4. Condensation reaction
  30. What is the expected electronic configuration of Cu atom in the ground state?
    1. 1S2, 2S2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 4S1, 3d10
    2. 1S2, 2s2, 2P6, 3S2, 4s2, 3d9
    3. 1S2, 2s2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P6, 4S2, 3d10
    4. 1S2, 2s2, 2P6, 3S2, 3P5, 4S2, 3d10

Answers

  1. C
  2. D
  3. C
  4. B
  5. C
  6. C
  7. B
  8. A
  9. C
  10. C
  11. A
  12. B
  13. A
  14. C
  15. A
  16. C
  17. B
  18. A
  19. B
  20. A
  21. B
  22. A
  23. A
  24. A
  25. A
  26. D
  27. A
  28. C
  29. B
  30. A
  31. D
  32. C
  33. C
  34. C
  35. B
  36. C
  37. C
  38. B
  39. B
  40. C
  41. A
  42. B
  43. B
  44. B
  45. B
  46. D
  47. C
  48. B
  49. A
  50. B
  51. D
  52. D
  53. C
  54. B
  55. C
  56. A
  57. C
  58. D
  59. B
  60. D
  61. A
  62. B
  63. C
  64. A
  65. B
  66. C
  67. A
  68. B
  69. A
  70. B
  71. C
  72. A
  73. A
  74. C
  75. C
  76. A
  77. A
  78. D
  79. B
  80. B
  81. A
  82. A
  83. D
  84. C
  85. D
  86. C
  87. A
  88. B
  89. B
  90. B
  91. C
  92. B
  93. B
  94. D
  95. C
  96. B
  97. A
  98. A
  99. B

Test your knowledge for free take a practice test : Past paper Practice test for IOM BSN 2071