Lumbini Pradesh Loksewa Aayog Nepal

Lumbini Pradesh Loksewa Aayog Nepal
Competitive Written Examination for the post of Health Services, General Nursing Group Assistant Level 5, Staff Nurse under State Civil Service

Leave a Comment / Entrance Exam, LOK SEWA AAYOG, Past Papers / By

प्रदेश लोक सेवा आयोग 

लुम्बिनी प्रदेश

प्रदेश निजामती सेवा अन्तर्गत स्वास्थ्य सेवा, जनरल नर्सिङ समूह सहायक पाँचौ तह, स्टाफ नर्स पदको प्रतियोगितात्मक लिखित परीक्षा

Select the correct answer and then add an explanation..

  1. असल सन्चारका गुणहरुमा तलको कुन पर्दैन ?
    1. न्यायपूर्ण
    2. स्पष्टता
    3. पर्याप्तता
    4. वास्तविकता

The correct answer is: A. न्यायपूर्ण

  1. निजामती सेवा अन्तर्गत कतिवटा  सेवाहरु गठन गरिएको छ ?
    1. ८ वटा
    2. ९ वटा
    3. १० वटा 
    4. ११ वटा

The correct answer is: C. १० वटा 

  1. प्राथमिकताका आधारमा चिठीपत्रलाई कति भागमा वर्गीकरण गरिएको छ?
    1. ४ 
    2. ५ 
    3. ६ 
    4. ७

The correct answer is: C. ६ 

  1. कार्यालयमा भौतिक साधन अन्तर्गत देहाएको कुन पर्दैन ?
    1. मेसिनरी औजार
    2. फर्निचर
    3. जनशक्ति
    4. सवारी साधन

The correct answer is: C.जनशक्ति

  1. खर्चको फाटवारी म . ले  . प  . फा .  न  कतिमा पर्दछ।
    1. २१० 
    2. २१२ 
    3. २१४ 
    4. २२१

The correct answer is: A. २१० 

  1. What substances produce “colloid osmotic pressure”?
    1. The clotting factors in blood
    2. The protein component of blood
    3. The cellular component of blood
    4. The serum component of blood

The correct answer is: the protein component of blood.

Explanation: Colloid osmotic pressure, also known as oncotic pressure, is the pressure exerted by proteins, particularly albumin, in the blood vessels. This pressure is essential for maintaining the balance of fluids between the blood vessels and tissues. Albumin and other proteins in the blood are too large to pass through the walls of the blood vessels, so they remain in the vessels and create a force that pulls fluids back into the vessels. This helps prevent the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues and is critical for maintaining normal blood volume and pressure. Therefore, the protein component of blood is responsible for producing colloid osmotic pressure.

  1. The total number of chromosomes in a zygote is:
    1. 23
    2. 24
    3. 44
    4. 46

The total number of chromosomes in a zygote is 46.

A zygote is formed by the fusion of a sperm cell and an egg cell during fertilization. Sperm and egg cells each contain 23 chromosomes, which combine to form a diploid zygote with 46 chromosomes. These 46 chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs, with one chromosome in each pair inherited from the mother and the other from the father.

  1. Which part of the human brain has a center for controlling breathing?
    1. Medulla oblongata
    2. Diencephalon
    3. Cerebrum
    4. Cerebellum

The medulla oblongata, located in the brainstem, contains the respiratory center that controls breathing.

  1. What regulates the muscle contraction in our body?
    1. Na, Ca
    2. Na, K
    3. K, Ca
    4. Na, K, Ca

D. Na, K, Ca

Muscle contraction in our body is regulated by the ions calcium (Ca) and potassium (K). Sodium (Na) ions also play a role in the process, but to a lesser extent.

  1. Which artery supplies the blood to the heart muscle?
    1. Carotid artery
    2. Celiac artery
    3. Coronary artery
    4. Ronal Artery

Coronary artery supply blood to the heart muscle.

  1. You are managing an adult choking victim. He initially can cough, but now is grasping his throat and cyanosed. What is the next step?
    1. Heimlich maneuver (Abdominal thrust)
    2. Rescue breathing
    3. Begin CPR
    4. Vasovagal maneuver

Correct Answer:

A. Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust)

Explanation: The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust) is the recommended next step for an adult choking victim who is unable to cough or speak and is grasping their throat and cyanosed.

  1. A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. What is the best position for the client?
    1. Fowler’s position
    2. Side lying
    3. Supine
    4. Prone

Correct Answer:

B. Side lying

Explanation: The best position for an unconscious client who needs frequent mouth care is side-lying. This position helps prevent aspiration and allows for drainage of secretions.

  1. Before administering oxygen, we need to:
    1. Dry oxygen
    2. Heat the oxygen
    3. Humidified the oxygen
    4. Maintained the position of patient

Correct Answer:

C. Humidified the oxygen

Explanation: Before administering oxygen, it needs to be humidified to prevent drying of the mucous membranes and potential damage to the lungs.

  1. Ambulatory ECG monitoring refers to:
    1. Holter monitoring
    2. ECG
    3. Ultrasound
    4. Echocardiogram

Correct Answer:

A. Holter monitoring

Explanation: Ambulatory ECG monitoring is also known as Holter monitoring, which is a continuous recording of a patient’s electrocardiogram (ECG) for 24-48 hours to detect any abnormal heart rhythms.

  1. Information regarding the patient can be obtained from various sources other than the patient like medical records, lab investigations are the form of:
    1. Primary data 
    2. Secondary data 
    3. Record review 
    4. Survey data

Correct Answer:

B. Secondary data

Explanation: Information obtained from sources other than the patient, such as medical records or lab investigations, is considered secondary data.

  1. While cleaning around a drainage site, the nurse should:
    1. Clean from the center out in a circular motion 
    2. Remove the brain before cleaning the skin 
    3. Clean briskly around the site with alcohol 
    4. Wear sterile gloves and a mask before cleaning

Correct Answer:

A. Clean from the center out in a circular motion

Explanation: When cleaning around a drainage site, the nurse should clean from the center out in a circular motion to prevent contamination of the site.

  1. Choose the correct sequence of instrument processing to sterilization:
    1. Cleaning – drying – wrapping – autoclave 
    2. Decontamination – cleaning – drying – wrapping – autoclave 
    3. Drying – cleaning – autoclave – wrapping 
    4. Cleaning – disinfection – wrapping – drying

Correct Answer:

B. Decontamination – cleaning – drying – wrapping – autoclave

Explanation: The correct sequence of instrument processing to sterilization is decontamination, cleaning, drying, wrapping, and then autoclaving.

  1. Failure to meet needs for sleep and rest leads to fatigue, irritability, behavioral changes, difficulty in concentrating, and exhaustion is:
    1. Physiological need 
    2. Safety and security need 
    3. Love and belonging need 
    4. Self-esteem need

Correct Answer:

A. Physiological need

Explanation: Failure to meet the physiological need for sleep and rest can lead to fatigue, irritability, behavioral changes, difficulty in concentrating, and exhaustion.

  1. For the first aid management of a client with a fracture, the first step must be done:
    1. Reassurance to the client 
    2. Immobilization 
    3. Use of padding 
    4. Transfer to a health facility

Answer: B. Immobilization

Explanation: The first step in the first aid management of a client with a fracture is immobilization. Immobilization helps to prevent further damage to the affected area and reduces the risk of complications. Reassurance to the client, use of padding, and transfer to a health facility are important steps but come after immobilization.

  1. All of the following are complications of peptic ulcer except:
    1. Hemorrhage 
    2. Perforation 
    3. Gastric outlet obstruction 
    4. Lymphatic spread

Answer: D. Lymphatic spread

Explanation: Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop in the lining of the stomach, esophagus, or small intestine. The most common complications of peptic ulcers are hemorrhage, perforation, and gastric outlet obstruction. Lymphatic spread is not a complication of peptic ulcers.

  1. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs as a result of insufficient:
    1. Insulin in the body 
    2. Glucose stored in the body 
    3. Utilization of the insulin 
    4. Utilization of the glucose

Answer: A. Insulin in the body

Explanation: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs as a result of insufficient insulin in the body. Insulin helps to regulate the level of glucose in the blood. When there is insufficient insulin, the body cannot use glucose for energy, and it starts to break down fats for fuel. This process leads to the formation of ketones, which can cause the blood to become too acidic.

  1. In the resuscitation of a patient with cardiac arrest, the rescuer first attempts:
    1. Defibrillation of the heart 
    2. Chest compression 
    3. Establish a patent airway 
    4. Mouth-to-mouth breathing

Answer: B. Chest compression 

Explanation: Chest compression

  1. Holistic nursing is the essence of nursing, which includes:
    1. Physical and psychological health 
    2. Physical and social health 
    3. Physiological, social, and spiritual health 
    4. Physical, psychological, social, and spiritual health

Correct Answer:

D. Physical, psychological, social, and spiritual health

Explanation: Holistic nursing is a nursing approach that considers the whole person, including their physical, psychological, social, and spiritual health.

  1. What can help reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain?
    1. Preoperative teaching 
    2. Preoperative checklist 
    3. Psychological counseling 
    4. Preoperative medication

Correct Answer:

A. Preoperative teaching

Explanation: Preoperative teaching can help reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain by providing information and preparing the patient for what to expect before, during, and after the surgery.

  1. One of the most common causes of gastrointestinal obstruction is due to:
    1. Growth 
    2. Peritoneal adhesion 
    3. Infection 
    4. Nutritional defect

Correct Answer:

B. Peritoneal adhesion

Explanation: Peritoneal adhesion is one of the most common causes of gastrointestinal obstruction, which occurs when tissues in the abdomen become stuck together and create a blockage.

  1. What is the most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula?
    1. Cancer of the pelvic organs 
    2. Surgery to the urinary tract 
    3. Childbirth complications 
    4. Trauma to the pelvic area

Correct Answer:

C. Childbirth complications

Explanation: Childbirth complications are the most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula, which is an abnormal opening between the bladder and vagina that allows urine to leak.

  1. Among the following, which is the most important cause of OPD:
    1. Cigarette smoking 
    2. Air pollution 
    3. Alcohol intake 
    4. Chronic infection

Correct Answer:

A. Cigarette smoking 

  1. All of the following are immediate and initial management of hypertensive syndrome except:
    1. Self-restriction 
    2. Use of diuretics 
    3. Strict bed rest 
    4. Low-fat diet

Correct Answer:

D. Low-fat diet

Explanation: A low-fat diet is not an immediate or initial management of hypertensive syndrome. Immediate and initial management may include self-restriction, use of diuretics, and strict bed rest.

  1. When caring for a client with a spinal cord injury, the initial responsibility of the nurse is to:
    1. Prevent contractions and atrophy 
    2. Avoid flexion or hyperextension of the spine 
    3. Prevent urinary tract infections 
    4. Prepare the client for vocational rehabilitation

Correct Answer:

B. Avoid flexion or hyperextension of the spine

Explanation: When caring for a client with a spinal cord injury, the initial responsibility of the nurse is to avoid flexion or hyperextension of the spine to prevent further damage.

  1. What is a surgical safety checklist (SSC)?
    1. A tool to reduce the risk of preventable complications during the perioperative period 
    2. A list of equipment that requires during surgery 
    3. List of preoperative preparation checklist 
    4. A document listing all roles of staff members in the operating theatre

Correct Answer:

A. A tool to reduce the risk of preventable complications during the perioperative period

Explanation: A surgical safety checklist (SSC) is a tool designed to reduce the risk of preventable complications during the perioperative period.

  1. In which condition is Ringer Lactate solution contraindicated?
    1. Hypovolemia 
    2. Burns
    3. Lactic acidosis 
    4. Septic shock

Correct Answer:

C. Lactic acidosis

Explanation: Ringer Lactate solution is contraindicated in patients with lactic acidosis.

  1. Vaccine-induced immunity is the type of:
    1. Active immunity 
    2. Passive immunity
    3. Artificial immunity 
    4. Natural immunity

Correct Answer:

A. Artificial immunity 

Explanation: Vaccine-induced immunity is a type of Artificial immunity.

  1. Exclusive breastfeeding is discontinued nowadays when:
    1. The infant reaches 5 months 
    2. The infant becomes 6 months old
    3. The weaning is done 
    4. The mother starts menstruation

Correct Answer:

B. The infant becomes 6 months old

Explanation: Exclusive breastfeeding is usually discontinued when the infant reaches 6 months old.

  1. A person on an iron diet usually passes:
    1. Clay-colored stool 
    2. Black-colored stool
    3. Normal colored stool 
    4. Light green stool

Correct Answer:

B. Black-colored stool

Explanation: A person on an iron diet usually passes black-colored stool.

  1. The occurrence of an unusually large or unexpected number of cases in the community is:
    1. Primary 
    2. Pandemic 
    3. Epidemic 
    4. Infection

Correct Answer:

C. Epidemic

Explanation: The occurrence of an unusually large or unexpected number of cases in the community is called an epidemic.

  1. What is the scheduled vaccination for IPV against Polio under a one-year-old child?
    1. 6th, 10th, and 14th weeks 
    2. 6th and 10th weeks
    3. 14th week and 9th month 
    4. 9th month and 15th month

Correct Answer:

C. 14th week and 9th month 

Explanation:

The scheduled vaccination for Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) against Polio under a one-year-old child is given at 6th and 10th weeks after birth.

  1. The priority nursing care for a severely pre-eclampsia mother includes:
    1. Isolation in a dark room 
    2. Maintaining the supine position
    3. Encouraging to drink clear fluids 
    4. Protecting against extraneous stimuli

Correct Answer:

D. Protecting against extraneous stimuli

Explanation:

Protecting against extraneous stimuli

  1. The MVA procedure is complete when:
    1. The wall of the uterus feels smooth
    2. The vacuum in the syringe decreases
    3. Red or pink foam, and no more tissue is visible in the cannula
    4. The uterus relaxes

Correct Answer:

C. Red or pink foam, and no more tissue is visible in the cannula

Explanation:

The MVA (Manual Vacuum Aspiration) procedure is complete when red or pink foam, and no more tissue is visible in the cannula.

  1. Morning sickness usually occurs for:
    1. First 3 months of pregnancy 
    2. 28 weeks of pregnancy
    3. 30 weeks of pregnancy 
    4. Up to labor

Correct Answer:

A. First 3 months of pregnancy

Explanation:

Morning sickness, which is nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, usually occurs during the first trimester or the first 3 months of pregnancy.

  1. All of the following are purposes of pre-conception care except:
    1. Promoting the health of both husband and wife
    2. Securing the risk partners
    3. Taking intervention to address risk
    4. Promoting family planning

Correct Answer:

B. Promoting family planning

Explanation:

Promoting family planning

  1. The primary critical observation for APGAR scoring is:
    1. Heart rate 
    2. Respiratory rate
    3. Presence of meconium 
    4. Evaluation of more reflex

Correct Answer:

A. Heart rate

Explanation:

The primary critical observation for APGAR scoring is heart rate, which indicates the infant’s need for resuscitation.

  1. Kegel’s exercise is done to prevent:
    1. STI 
    2. Pelvic organ prolapse 
    3. APH 
    4. PPH

Correct Answer:

B. Pelvic organ prolapse

Explanation:

Kegel’s exercise is done to prevent pelvic organ prolapse, which is a condition where the pelvic organs fall from their normal position.

  1. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore nipples?
    1. Tell mother to breast feed more frequently
    2. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
    3. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
    4. Use soap and water to clean the nipples

Correct Answer:

A. Tell mother to breastfeed more frequently

Explanation:

The nurse should tell the mother to breastfeed more frequently when she complains of sore nipples as this will help to soften the nipples and promote healing.

  1. What is the main point a nurse needs to consider while caring for a child with chest tube drainage for pneumothorax?
    1. Keep the drainage bag above the chest
    2. Check the drainage bag regularly for patency by pressure of air bubbles while coughing
    3. Empty the drainage bag completely on a daily basis
    4. Do not remove the chest tube if the child complains of pain

Correct Answer:

B. Check the drainage bag regularly for patency by pressure of air bubbles while coughing

Explanation:

Check the drainage bag regularly for patency by pressure of air bubbles while coughing

  1. Baby can crawl at the age of:
    1. 7 months 
    2. 8 months 
    3. 9 months 
    4. 10 months

D. 10 months

Explanation:

10 months. 

  1. The most important sign for identifying pneumonia in children is:
    1. Tachycardia 
    2. Chest in drawing
    3. High temperature 
    4. Grunting

B. Chest in drawing

Explanation:

Chest in drawing, also known as retractions, is a common sign of pneumonia in children. It occurs when the muscles between the ribs pull inward with each breath in an effort to help the lungs inflate.

  1. A sensory experience in the absence of sensory stimulation is known as:
    1. Hallucination 
    2. Attribution 
    3. Delusion 
    4. Loose association

A. Hallucination

Explanation:

A hallucination is a sensory experience that occurs in the absence of any sensory stimulation. It can involve any of the senses, including sight, sound, touch, taste, and smell.

  1. The goal of motivation theory is to facilitate:
    1. Intimacy 
    2. Socialization 
    3. Productivity 
    4. Insight 

C. Productivity

Explanation:

The goal of motivation theory is to understand and facilitate productive and effective behavior in individuals and groups. This can include increasing productivity, creativity, and overall performance.

  1. Obsession is a disorder of:
    1. Perception 
    2. Thinking 
    3. Memory
    4. Judgments

B. Thinking

Explanation:

Obsession is a mental disorder characterized by persistent, uncontrollable, and often irrational thoughts or ideas. It is considered a disorder of thinking.

  1. All of the following are risk factors for suicidal behavior, except:
    1. History of suicide threats and attempts
    2. Adverse environmental events
    3. Perceived hopelessness
    4. Social isolation

B. Adverse environmental events

Explanation:

Adverse environmental events, such as natural disasters or economic downturns, can contribute to mental health problems, but they are not considered a direct risk factor for suicidal behavior. Other risk factors include a history of suicide attempts, perceived hopelessness, and social isolation.

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Let us Help You!!!

We value your inquiries, send us a message and we'll get back to you